We are going to solve the truncated moment problem in this post. The theorem we are going to establish is more general than the original problem itself. The following theorem is a bit abstract, you can skip to Corollary 2 to see what the truncated moment problem is and why it has a generalization in the form of Theorem 1.
Theorem 1 Suppose
is a random transformation from a probability space
to a measurable space
where each singleton set of
is in
. Let each
be a real valued (Borel measurable) function with its domain to be
,
. Given
and they are all finite, there exists a random variable
such that
takes no more than
values in
, and
(If you are not familiar with terms Borel measurable, measurable space and sigma-algebras , then just ignore these. I put these term here just to make sure the that the theorem is rigorous enough.)
Let me parse the theorem for you. Essentially, the theorem is trying to say that given many expectations, no matter what kind of source the randomness comes from, i.e., what
is, we can always find a finite valued random variable (which is
in the theorem) that achieves the same expectation.
To have a concrete sense of what is going on, consider the following Corollary of Theorem 1. It is the original truncated moment problem.
Corollary 2 (Truncated Moment Problem) For any real valued random variable
with its first
moments all finite, i.e., for all
there exists a real valued discrete random variable
which takes no more than
values in
and its first
moments are the same as
, i.e.,
This original truncated moment problem is asking that given the (uncentered) moments, can we always find a finite discrete random variable that matches all the moments. It should be clear that is a simple consequence of Theorem 1 by letting and
.
There is also a multivariate version of truncated moment problem which can also be regarded as a special case of Theorem 1.
Corollary 3 (Truncated Moment Problem, Multivariate Version) For any real random vector
and its all
th order moments are finite, i.e.,
for any
. Each
here is a nonnegative integer. The total number of moments in this case is
. Then there is a real random vector
such that it takes no more than
values, and
Though the form of Theorem 1 is quite general and looks scary, it is actually a simple consequence of the following lemma and the use of convex hull.
Lemma 4 For any convex set
, and any random variable
which has finite mean and takes value only in
, i.e,
we have
The above proposition is trivially true if is closed or
takes only finitely many value. But it is true that
is only assumed to be convex. We will show it in this post.
We are now ready to show Theorem 1.
Proof of Theorem 1: Consider the set
The convex hull of this set is
Now take the random variable which takes value only in
, by Lemma 4 of convex set, we know that
Note that every element in has a FINITE representation in terms of
s!
This means we can find ,
and
such that
Since each for some
, we can simply take the distribution of
to be
Finally, apply the theorem of Caratheodory to conclude that .
Good info over again. Thumbs up;)
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Hi Lola, thank you for reading the blog and sorry for the spelling errors. Some of them are prepared in a hurry and I did not get time to correct the spellings. Can you point out some spelling errors the next time you read?
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