Suppose we have a general optimization problem.
Also, suppose problem (1) has a minimum and the minimum can be achieved by a unique minimizer .
Now if I have a point such that
is very small, then how small is the distance
. We might expect that
will imply that
. This is true if
is compact and
is continuous. But this does not tell what is the quantitative relationship between the optimal gap, i.e.,
, and the distance to the solution, i.e.,
.
In this post, I am going to show that for linear programming (LP), the optimal gap and distance to solutions are the same up to a multiplicative constant which only depends on the problem data.
To start, consider an LP in the standard form, i.e.,
where the decision variable is and problem data are
.
means each coordinate of
is nonnegative.
Denote the solution set of problem (1) to be , and the distance to the solution set
to be
. Note that the norm here is arbitrary, not necessarily the Euclidean norm.
We are now ready to state the theorem.
Theorem 1 (Sandwich inequality of optimal gap and distance to solutions of LP) For problem (1), theres exist constants
which depends only on
and
such that for all feasible
, i.e.,
,
The above theorem shows that the role of optimal gap, i.e., , and the distance to the solution set, i.e.
, are the same up to a multiplicative constant. The right inequality of the theorem is usually referred to as linear growth in the optimization literature.
The proof below is constructive and we can in fact take where
and
for
and
. Here
is the dual norm and
are extreme points and extreme rays. We assume there are
many extreme points and
many extreme rays with first
s and first
are in the optimal set
. See the proof for more detail.
The idea of the proof mainly relies on the extreme point and extreme rays representation of the feasible region and the optimal set,i.e., and
.
Proof: The feasible region can be written as
Here s are extreme points of the feasible region and
s are extreme rays. By scaling the extreme rays, we can assume that
for all
.
The optimal set can also be written as
We assume here the first many
and
many
are in the optimal set and the rest of
and
s are not for notation simplicity.
We denote and
where
. Note
since the
s not in the optimal set should have inner product with
to be positive.
We first prove the second inquality, i.e., .
Now take an arbitrary feasible , it can be written as
for some and
.
The objective value of is then
We use the fact that for all
here.
Subtract the above by . We have
The second equality is due to and the inequality is because of the definition of
and the
s are positive.
The distance between and
is the infimum of
By taking with
and
and apply triangular inequality to the above quantity, we have
The first inequality is the triangular inequality and . The second inequality is applying the definition of
and
. The first equality is due to
and the second equality is due to
.
Thus the distance between and
is bounded above by
Since by our previous argument, we see that setting
should give us
We now prove the inequality
Note that the infimum in is actually achieved by some
. The reason is that we can first pick a
, then
But the set is actually bounded and closed (
is closed as it is a convex combination of finite points plus a conic combination of extreme vectors), thus Weierstrass theorems tells us that the infimum is actually achieved by some
.
Now take such that
. We have
where is the dual norm of
. Thus letting
finishes the proof.
From the proof, we see that two possible choice of and
are
where
and
for
and
. These are not optimal and can be sharpened. I probably will give a sharper constant in a future post.